This is a follow up to my previous post. Last week 1/2/23 Barclays rescinded my "paid in full" coupon payment as they claim the coupon is not a valid means of payment without a separate form of payment included. After explaining to a manager in their card services escalation department and emailing her copies of the completed and signed coupon along with a copy of my remittance letter explaining the statement, coupon, and bond definitions they still deny the coupon can be legally used as a form of payment. My next step is to wait for the denial letter they send out on 1/2/23 and then put together my conditional acceptance towards this. One step at a time.
Did you send the coupon back to them? or Did you send it to the treasury authorizing them to pay it on your behalf?
In the book "Give Yourself Credit: Money Doesn't Grow On Trees!: David Robinson says to send it to the treasury not back to the bank. He gives examples in the back of the book and tells you exactly what to say.
Did you originally send the coupon to the Conditional Address or the CEO? To my knowledge, speaking to the manager probably won't solve anything because they are usually not aware of this. When you send coupons, you're operating in the Private. The part where you they said "coupon is not a valid means of payment without a separate form of payment included" could that mean you have to send in the 1040v form ?